Re: Heidegger and Nietzsche (H & Greek)

As I am reading the discussion on Kehre (Nietzsche and Nazism) one simple
question comes to mind: What would it mean to give a date when Kehre occured
first?
On the one hand, to attempt to do such a thing would mean to banalize - not
to mention misunderstand what Kehre marks ( and Kehre is only a marker of
something, not something - I believe). But, on the other hand, preciselly
because of what Kehre marks, one needs to date it. Not to give it exact date
on the calendar, but to give a historicity of this notion. The turn is
inseparable from being and time (from the way H. trys to think them together)
and also from the historical situation which Heidegger is trying to think.
Kehre in fact dates H. philosophy ( I say this nor being sure whether it
reveals something or not).
Petar



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