Is anyone familiar with some "knock-down" criticisms of the translation of
"Vorhandenheit" as "presence-at-hand"? It seems to me that this is a good
translation--conceptually speaking--because it embodies both the
"at-handness" of the vorhanden and the temporal foundation of this
"at-handness". (For this latter point--"_The ecstasis of the present is the
foundation for the specifically intentional transcendence of the perception
of extant entities" (BP 315).)
Thanks, Chris Hargens
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"Vorhandenheit" as "presence-at-hand"? It seems to me that this is a good
translation--conceptually speaking--because it embodies both the
"at-handness" of the vorhanden and the temporal foundation of this
"at-handness". (For this latter point--"_The ecstasis of the present is the
foundation for the specifically intentional transcendence of the perception
of extant entities" (BP 315).)
Thanks, Chris Hargens
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