On Tue, 18 Jul 1995, David Blacker wrote:
> Finitude is the "reason" for any movement between
> authenticity-inauthenticity: eg the various forms of fleeing toward
> inauthenticity, and back in the other direction, going "under the eyes of
> death" toward authenticity. Make any sense?
>
> David
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Yes, yes it does. However, my real question here is *WHY* is finitude
the primary condition for the possibility of authenticity and
inauthenticity? I understand the quasi-Kantian maneuver, and I agree
with your claim that in BT and in his other early works Heidegger is much
inclined to making such a maneuver. What I don't understand is how
finitude is supposed to be a necessary condition of in/authenticity.
Any ideas?
Thanks for the cool comments,
David Schenk.
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