In a message dated 21/10/2004 20:40:10 GMT Standard Time, tgeorgescu@xxxxxxx
writes:
> Ontology (MARK 1) Beings featured as a NON-REQUIREMENT of *Being*
> Ontology (MARK 2) *Being* featured as ALWAYS being accompanied by beings.
I don't see the contradiction. (1) states that beings are not necessary (2)
states that beings are present. The only explanation is that Being wants
beings be, it is an act of will, neither necessity of presence nor absence.
Tudor Georgescu
Jud:
You need to have another think Tudor. You need to look again at Mk1 and Mk
2 against the background or underlying assumptions by Heidegger as to the
process by which (a) *Being* and (b) beings are *uncovered.*
Heidegger acknowledged along with Husserl that the *Being* of all beings
[entities] lies in the sense we gain of them in our understanding.
He shared also Husserl's transcendental subjectivism and modern
anthropocentrism. Another way of understanding this is you take a peek at GA1 325. cf
215,266 - *Object-Givennesss* - the aspect under which the entity is understood
- *It is the function of the form in the complex of meaning to give the
object its *Being.* Heidegger dismissed mirror theories of language and truth
early on. The *all that is* [or my own:*that which exists*] becomes the
categories of our understandong of *Being.*.
Apply this notion to Mk1 and what do you get?
(a) How can there be *Being* in a void deplete of entities, if the very
being necessary for the instantiation of *Being* through the medium of
understanding itself and/or understanding other beings, is in abstentia?
(b) How can a void empty of beings include *Being,* if both the being which
needs to understand a being, and the being which needs to be understood by
that being in order to reveal/uncover *Being* are both not in being?
(c) Put another way. In a system empty of beings, where beings are
considered to be *unneccessary for *Being* to be present,* how can *Being* be
*uncovered,* and how would a being looking in on system Mk1 from the viewpoint of Mk
2 where beings are considered necessary for *Being* to be *uncovered* know
this is the case or not the case?
(d) In system MK 1 where beings are not considered necessary to *uncover*
*Being* - who has *uncovered* it or understood or not understood it if the are
no beings there in the first place to understand it or not to understand it -
and how does Heidegger know this?
(e) If *Being* WAS present in a non-being system who can vouchsafe the fact
if there are no beings around either to instantiate it through an
understanding of it or to testify as to it being unnecessary to understand it in order
to instantiate [uncover] it?
(f) Same thing - different terminology. How can there be *existence* if
there is nothing to be the existence of?
(g) How can *Being* exert *an act if will, * if *Being* is itself the result
of an *the act of will* on the part of a being to understand itself or some
other object?
This kiddy-philosophy is great fun - it's as easy as shooting sitting ducks
who are floating on still water with their wings strapped to their sides.
Why did I bother arsing around with numbers *8 and 14* when the putative
ontological *noughts and crosses* bit [the so-called *Heideggerian philosophy,*
is no more complicated than playing real *noughts and crosses* with 6-year
olds? I can see now that the secret of unravelling this crap is to adopt
Heidegger's own baby-language and simply use it to expose his stupidity. ;-) If
Heidegger talked philosophical baby-talk, the only way to comment upon him,
and be understood, is to don the same style diapers as him, kneel beside him,
give him a rattle and speak baby-talk.
Ah well! Tudor
Back to the *worlding of the world*
BTW you site is quite looking good - I visit occasionally.
Regards,
Jud
Personal Website:
_http://evans-experientialism.freewebspace.com/index.htm_
(http://evans-experientialism.freewebspace.com/index.htm)
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