Perhaps someone can help a poor psychologist figure out what the heck. This
is obviously a basic question, but one I am having considerable trouble
with. it concerns the nature of conscioiusness.
When I read Sartre's explaination of reflective versus pre-reflective
consciousness, the idea of pre-reflective consciosness sounds very similar
to what in psychology is dubbed the unconscious. Now, I understand Sartre's
aversion to the notion of an unconscious. At least, I understand he thought
the idea absurd (though I never found an explanation of why). Is the
pre-reflective consciousness simply Sartre's way (or, better,
phenomenology's way) of suggesting analternative to the unconscious? Is this
a "distance" thing, in terms of pre-conscious is just a bit further away
>from ego awareness than reflective conscious... but still basically the same
"stuff?" Or is "unconscious" considered by phenomenologists to be a
qualitatively different "stuff" than consciousness? Or, is "unconscious"
simply not considered at all?
Any help out there?
Michael
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