RE: BEING AND TIME question

At 10:24 PM 9/20/96 +0100, M.Eldred_artefact wrote:

>Cologne, 20 September 1996

>

>Erika wrote:

>"Where does this "value" idea come from?.."

>

>As far as I can tell, it's a swipe at the 'value-theoretical Criticism,
one

>school of Neo-Kantianism in the first part of this century whose main

>representatives were W. Windelband,


Is it a swipe though? It seems that he's building on this neo-kantian
opposition to shore up his all important distinction between what's
"ready to hand" vs. what's "present to hand". That's the gist of
Chris's response:


>>>>

<excerpt>One must attend to the inverted commas which indicate that
Heidegger is

using someone else's words. He is referring to neo-Kantian philosophy

(which school escapes me at the moment). The point he wishes to make
is

that things appear in the world as meaningful and "valuable" as they

appear; contrary to what neo-kantians thought, the value is not
"invested"

by the will after the bare empirical appearance of a thing.


</excerpt><<<<<<<<



The setting into place of that distinction seems to be one of the more
important interventions accomplished by Being and Time. The swipe, as
always in B&T, is against Husserl and his cartesion notion of
phenomenology. The value reference is probably also to Dilthey.



Regards,



-------------------------------------------------------------------

Robert Moskal

Brooklyn USA






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